[ The following response of the above question has been taken from the cambridge union debate between Br Hamza Tzortizis and Professor Simon Blackburn. The full article can be read from here ]
The Professor argued that even if we can conclude there must have been a designer for the fine-tuning that is apparent in the universe, this doesn’t stop us from asking “who designed the designer?”, in other words there can be a meta-metaphysical designer, and a meta-meta-metaphysical designer and so on.
Br Hamza argued that in the Philosophy of science the best explanation doesn’t require an explanation. Anyone with a basic understanding of the philosophy of science will conclude that in the inference to the best explanation, the best explanation doesn’t require an explanation! I used an example similar to the one that follows to illustrate this point.
Imagine 500 years from now a group of futuristic archaeologists were to start digging in on the moon only to find parts of a car and a bus. They would be completely justified in inferring that these finds were products of an unknown civilisation. However if they were to argue that we can’t make such inferences because we do not know anything about this civilization, how they lived and who created them, would that make the archaeologists conclusions untrue? Of course not!
Additionally he (Hamza) concluded this response by saying that even if we were to apply this type of question to every attempt at explaining the explanation, we would end up with an infinite regress of explanations. And an infinite regress of explanations would defeat the whole purpose of science in the first place, which is to provide an explanation!
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